How useless are the Christian Bible translations?

Let us compare the most famous scripture in the Bible, the Psalm 23, between the Greek/English translations with the original Hebrew. Let us see how useless the KJV / NIV are. Also demonstrates why Jewish scholarship never base our theology on even the JPS.

Verse 3: ינחני במעגלי צדק

He places me in encirclement of righteousness.
עגל = round, circle, sphere
מעגל = is the participative/intensive gerund =  encirclement, surround

In Numbers 15 v38-39 where tassels in Hebrew is tzitzit [ציצית] that keep the garment from fraying. Tzitzit [ציצית] actually means flower blossoms.

The garments terminated with flower blossoms is to remind us that G’d keeps the fabric of our communities from fraying apart by surrounding us with beautiful righteousness.

What do KJV / NIV say? “he leads me in paths of righteousness” ? Christianity is based on IMPOTENT English/Greek translations. They generate lots of reinvented definition and then use them to tell Jews are wrong. Their “truth” is based on circular dependency.

Verse 4:  כי אתה עמדי

for You are with me, You are my standing.

עמדי could be either be im-adi (with me) or amidi (my standing-up)
where עמד = root for both words stand or locate.

The LORD is my standing-ness with me.

Remember Psalm 121:3. Therefore, “You are my standing-ness with me, you are my stability standing with me” and therefore, “my foot will not be moved”.

See, the Christians basing their scriptures on their useless KJV / NIV will never get this. Poor Christians.

Verse 4: שבטך ומשענתך המה ינחמני

Your dominion and your providing-supporting they comfort-console me.

שבט = rod, but is mostly used in the Bible to mean tribe.
Why is the same word used for both rod and tribe?

שען = support.
משען = is the intensive = provide support.
משענת is the gerund = the providing of support.
נחם = comfort and console

A walking stick or a super-grandiose regal looking staff can be called a [משענת].

But in this case, משענת means exactly what it means - G'd providing support. Your assertive leadership and your being a support, they console and assure me.

What does the Greek/English translations say? What are these Christians believing they could reinvent the Hebrew scriptures with their Greek and English theologies? They translated their Bibles without even understanding the grammar? They reinvent the meaning of the Hebrew words, to support their pagan theology.

Verse 5: תערך לפני שלחן נגד צררי

You will arrange a table for me, as a concierge would, affronting my enemies.

You will concierge a table before me as an affront against my enemies.
You will provoke envy in my enemies by being a concierge to a table You layout before me.

Also, the next sentence is actually. “You invigorate my head with oil”. Not “anoint”. OTOH, the Hebrew word translated as “anoint” is explained here: http://rameneutics.avishegnath.net/2015/01/the-meaning-of-messiah.html

What does the useless KJV say?

Verse 6: אך טוב וחסד ירדפוני כל ימי חיי

but yet goodness and mercy will pursue and harass me.

רדפ = in pursuit, to harass, haunt, hunt down.

This one needs a little borrowing from Qabalah.

Verse 6 is a threatening warning. The verse says, After all the assurances goodness and mercy of the previous five verses, the same goodness and mercy will pursue and harass you.

And therefore, I will spend more time

Verse 6: ושבתי בבית יי לארך ימים

then, I will stay in the house of the LORD for lengthened days.

The verse actually says in Hebrew: So I will spend more time in the house of the LORD.

The verse is not a promise of eternal life.

Those Christians keep on reinventing the meaning of the Hebrew words in the Bible. Sometimes maliciously, but also sometimes their silly useless pagan “holy spirit” misleads them. They thought that verse 6 was a continuation of the assurances of the earlier five verses. But not if you understood the Hebrew and Qabalah of the verse. Goodness and mercy will "follow" you like a good lap dog!

They reinvent the word [שאול] to attempt to map it their pagan concept of “hades”. The “hades” of ancient Greek and Persian mythologies. But there is no concept of “hades” between Genesis to Malakhi.
http://rameneutics.avishegnath.net/2014/12/there-is-no-hell-in-bible.html

They have even successfully contaminated our English vocabulary with the pagan term “angel”.
http://rameneutics.avishegnath.net/2014/12/genesis-2-there-are-no-angels-in-bible.html

Jesus/Yeshua is a pagan god

השאלות אשר המאמינים בישוע הם פוחדים למענות.
Questions those who believe in Jesus are afraid to address.

1. In Greek mythology, Kronos the father god of Zeus, having no foresight, lost control of his universe. Such that his son Zeus had to visit Hades to defeat his enemies to redeem for that loss of control.
   
   In Jesus mythology, father-god of Jesus also lost control of his universe, having no foresight by having laws that would condemn humanity. And his son Jesus also had to visit Hades to defeat his enemies to redeem for that loss of control.
   
   The Jesus mythology copying from Greek and pagan mythology? How much more pagan could Jesus be? Perhaps, to be more accurate, Zeus led the charge to battle in the realm that would be called Hades, so that his brother Hades could sit on its throne. And Jesus is said to "conquer death" as did the fearsome holy trinity of Zeus and his brothers, Poseidon and Hades.The fathergod of Zeus was said to have lost control of his creation and ate his children. The fathergod of Jesus (whoever he is) is said to have lost control of his creation and had to sacrifice his son to regain it.
2. Numbers 22: 22 is most prominent of all “satanic” verses in the Bible. The passage speaks about Balaam being bribed by Balak to pronounce accusations against Jews. So G’d was angered and consequently the agent of the LORD became satan against Balaam.
   

   and he inflames the anger of G’d because he went then positions himself the agent of the LORD in his way to be satan to him

   ויחר אף אלהים כי הולך הוא ויתיצב מלאך יי בדרך לשטן לו

   But then those pagan-inspired translations (like the KJV / NIV ) never bothered to say that the verb “satan” [שטן] found in this verse, had been smoothly translated to mean “obstruct”.
   
   When read in the original Hebrew, Numbers 22:22 demonstrates that “satan” is a godly activity. In Hebrew, “satan שטן” is a verb/gerund that means impede / hindrance.
   
   The inventors of the Jesus myth missed out on that because they did not know Hebrew. Like Mohammed depended on Jewish backstreet superstitions to form his theology, so too the inventors of the Jesus myth – because they could not read Hebrew. They had to depend on the pagan-inspired Greek septuagint.
   
   
3. Every occurrence of "satan" in Job is ha-satan (השטן). The definite article in Hebrew is more focused than in English. "Ha-yom" (היום) does not mean "the day", but it means "this day". This particular day, today.
   
   
   (השטן) "ha-satan" means "this particular impediment/impeder". In biblical Hebrew "satan" is not name of a person but a role. If you read the Bible in the original Hebrew, "satan" is a godly task.
   
   There is not a single person found with a personal name “satan” when reading the Bible from Genesis to Joshua to Hosea to Malakhi – provided you read in the original Hebrew. Especially in the book of Job, every instance is “this satan”. Like “the king” or "this king", “the/this satan” is a role because it is found as a transient noun, not a proper noun.
   
   http://rameneutics.avishegnath.net/2014/08/satan-does-not-exist.html
   
   The Jesus new scriptures pick and choose when to hide the word “satan” and  translate "satan" as a godly act, and when to opportunistically associate the word to a concocted pagan super demon, which is not at all found between the books of Genesis to Malakhi.
   
   
4. Gen 2: 2
   
   

   Then G'd completes on the 7th day His fulfilling work which He did Then He rests on the 7th day from all His fulfilling work which He did.

   ויכל אלהים ביום בשביעי מלאכתו אשר עשה וישבת ביום השביעי מכל מלאכתו אשר עשה

   The alternative (and more plausible) explanation
   [לאך] LAKh = a task.
   [מלאך] MLAKh = piel intensive-participative = to perform a task, someone committed to a task.
   [מלאכתו] MLAKhTO = his commission to a task
   [מלאכת] MLAKheT = being commissioned to a task
   
   With a qabalistic mindset
   [מלא] = fill up, fulfill
   [מלא ך] = [מלאך] = your fulfillment.
   
   Jonah was asked by his shipmates "What is your [מלאכת] MLAKheT ?" - Jonah 1.
   Jacob sent his henchmen [מלאכים] MLAKhiM to meet with his brother Esav - Genesis 32.
   
   The last chronological book of the Bible. There is no more book of the Bible after Malakhi, because Malakhi means it is "done".
   
   
5. As explained, the Hebrew word [מלאך] MLAK does not mean "angel". “Angel” is from “anggelos” which are horse-mounted messenger demigods, which the Greeks inherited from Persian mythology.
   
   Between Genesis to Malakhi, there are no "angels". [מלאכת] MLAKheT means fulfilling work. Therefore, [מלאך] MLAK means agents of fulfilling work.
   
   But why did your predecessors choose to translate [מלאך] MLAK as "angellos". Of so many more suitable words to use in Greek, but the founders of your Jesus myth chose to use the pagan term "anggelos"?
   
   This question keeps bugging me - Why did founders/inventors of Jesus religion choose to assure converts of that they could continue with their romance of pagan demigods. So much so, that even Jews today being duped into using this pagan Greek/Persian word, also use the word "angel" when speaking in English.
   
   You see, when you read the earliest Arabic translation of the gospel - which was written in western Aramaic characters just like 2nd-temple era Hebrew and modern Hebrew. [הלאך] is the Aramaic equivalent of the Hebrew [הלך] means "go forth". Which is the cause of the confusion even in Quranic Arabic [מלאכת] MLAKhaT which means sending forth. They even have the word [אנגל] INJL - the noun for the eastern Aramaic messenger demigods.
   
   Modern and Quranic Arabic is actually a descendant language of Aramaic, not paleo-Arabic. Paleo-Arabic is an extinct language. Sometime, around 400 years after the supposed existence of Jesus/Jesuses, the Medes and Arab people adopted the current cursive character set closer. 
   
   Unbeknownst to the modern Christian, Roman-era pagan Arabic, Persian and Greek contributed so much contamination to the understanding of biblical Hebrew, where such contamination became the "TRUTH" of Christianity and subsequently to Islam. Regardless that such pagan literature was found among the Dead Sea Scrolls - because only the Hebrew version of the Bible matters.
   
   
6. There is no hades between Genesis to Malakhi.
   [שאול] ShE-OL is passive participle from the word [שאל] Sh-AL.
   [שאל] Sh-AL means to ask/question.
   
   Therefore, grammatically, the passive [שאול] ShE-OL means "unknown", mystery.
   
   Hades is from Persian and subsequent Greek pagan beliefs. Why does your Jesus religion fraudulently associate the gerund [שאול] ShE-OL with the pagan concept of "hades"? And even tried to keep up with Zeus in visiting hades.
   
   
7. Christian Greek documenters could not resist attempting to map the principalities found between Genesis to Malakhi, to the pagan hierarchy of demigods and demons. They have an innate and urgent urge to contaminate Jewish scripture and religion with their paganism.
   
   The REAL Jesus is a collage of multiple separate real and mythological personalities, by the Roman political engineers to unite the various mythologies of hapless chief gods having lost control and therefore had to sacrifice their son.
   
   
8. [גיע הינום] shortened as [ג'הינום] and transcripted by Greek speaking Jesus as gehenna. The place where pagans sacrificed their children to gain salvation from their gods.
   
   Why is the Jesus religion so filled with paganism?